I cannot say more than has been said. But I have a question. Judge K. gives the FDa 7 days, the Washington district judge says the FDA cannot remove Mifepristone. If scotus does not stay one or the order taking effect until they hear the case (which they certainly must due to two contrary rulings, can Judge K's order actually take effect…
I cannot say more than has been said. But I have a question. Judge K. gives the FDa 7 days, the Washington district judge says the FDA cannot remove Mifepristone. If scotus does not stay one or the order taking effect until they hear the case (which they certainly must due to two contrary rulings, can Judge K's order actually take effect, or at least take effect beyond his own district? I've heard what steps can be taken against (or for the ban) but I've heard no one address with clarity two same day decisions in direct contradiction of each other. I am not a lawyer but I do read a lot of judicial decisions but I have never encountered in my own readings any similar, nearly simultaneous decisions. Nor am I aware of any precedent that any district judge has the authority to ban a drug nationwide. Joyce, or someone, can you please explain this seeming contradiction in law.
These two dueling orders will be resolved by a higher court. DOJ probably doesn't want to appeal the Washington order, so they will wait on the other side. But I suspect the two cases get consolidated or at least heard together in front of the supreme court rather quickly.
I am kind of at a loss on this as are you.It seems incomprehensible that any court could actually have jurisdiction. Perhaps they could have jurisdiction if someone's health was in someone harmed from a drug and they might be called upon to make a decision on whether an FDA approved drug had caused harm.. They might be called upon prior to approval if the approval or the procedure for approval might have been tainted. But I cannot understand how a judge, especially a district judge could have any meritorious jurisdiction to even hear such a case.I have been querying google for any precedents that might have given him jurisdiction but google is giving be a blank stare.
I cannot say more than has been said. But I have a question. Judge K. gives the FDa 7 days, the Washington district judge says the FDA cannot remove Mifepristone. If scotus does not stay one or the order taking effect until they hear the case (which they certainly must due to two contrary rulings, can Judge K's order actually take effect, or at least take effect beyond his own district? I've heard what steps can be taken against (or for the ban) but I've heard no one address with clarity two same day decisions in direct contradiction of each other. I am not a lawyer but I do read a lot of judicial decisions but I have never encountered in my own readings any similar, nearly simultaneous decisions. Nor am I aware of any precedent that any district judge has the authority to ban a drug nationwide. Joyce, or someone, can you please explain this seeming contradiction in law.
These two dueling orders will be resolved by a higher court. DOJ probably doesn't want to appeal the Washington order, so they will wait on the other side. But I suspect the two cases get consolidated or at least heard together in front of the supreme court rather quickly.
Okay, Joyce. I have a question. What do you feel the outcome will be with this stacked, incompetent, corrupt, Supreme Court will be?
Particularly, how does this TX judge have the right to ban an approved drug that is safer than penicillin & viagra?
Can we find a judge to ban Viagra across the nation? That might get some attention
Maybe we could just find a judge to ban judges from making medical decisions.
Even better!!
But, the Supreme Court judges are to d**n old so they don’t care.
Hahahaha 🤣! EOW! You said it!
I am kind of at a loss on this as are you.It seems incomprehensible that any court could actually have jurisdiction. Perhaps they could have jurisdiction if someone's health was in someone harmed from a drug and they might be called upon to make a decision on whether an FDA approved drug had caused harm.. They might be called upon prior to approval if the approval or the procedure for approval might have been tainted. But I cannot understand how a judge, especially a district judge could have any meritorious jurisdiction to even hear such a case.I have been querying google for any precedents that might have given him jurisdiction but google is giving be a blank stare.